b***@hotmail.com
2015-09-21 12:31:09 UTC
Hi,
Suppose a UK ISP has a cable from UK to the US, i.e. undersea, and they've PAID for it. Now if a middle eastern person is trying to send email to an American, then that data could go via the UK, right? i.e. it could use THAT UK ISP'S CABLE!!....? Without the middle eastern guy paying for it....? (he'll be paying HIS, middle eastern, ISP of course...). How has this issue been settled? Since each ISP's only income is from it's OWN customers.....?
THanks.
Suppose a UK ISP has a cable from UK to the US, i.e. undersea, and they've PAID for it. Now if a middle eastern person is trying to send email to an American, then that data could go via the UK, right? i.e. it could use THAT UK ISP'S CABLE!!....? Without the middle eastern guy paying for it....? (he'll be paying HIS, middle eastern, ISP of course...). How has this issue been settled? Since each ISP's only income is from it's OWN customers.....?
THanks.